Qualifying Examination
 Sample Questions


The NBVME has selected the following 33 questions to provide candidates with an example of the type of questions that appear on the Qualifying Examination. An answer key follows the list of questions. These sample questions were chosen to represent the five general content areas of the examination (anatomy, physiology, pharmacology, microbiology, and pathology), but they do not address all of the individual content areas listed in the examination blueprint.

Approximately 7% of the items on the QE will contain graphic or pictorial information (such as a chart, photgraph, or radiograph), but none of the following sample items include any pictorial information. To get an idea of what pictorial items look like, you may refer to the sample NAVLE items available here.


1. Surgical exploration of the abdomen of the horse should include a check for intussusception of the ileum into the cecum. The ileum may be easily identified by locating which of the following?

(A) Antimesenteric ileal artery along the length of the ileum

(B) Entrance of the ileum into the right side of the base of the cecum

(C) Ileocecal fold that is attached to it

(D) Right abdominal gutter

(E) Small-diameter intestinal segment that has a single band


2. In the horse, damage to the suprascapular nerve results in the condition called sweeny, which is atrophy of which of the following muscles?

(A) Brachialis and supraspinatus muscles

(B) Brachialis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus muscles

(C) Supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles

(D) Triceps and infraspinatus muscles

(E) Triceps and supraspinatus muscles


3. In cattle, pericarditis may be caused by a sharp object penetrating the diaphragm. The object is most commonly located in which of the following organs?

(A) Duodenum

(B) Abomasum

(C) Omasum

(D) Reticulum

(E) Rumen


4. Which of the following features characterizes the kidneys of an adult cow?

(A) The left kidney is attached to the liver

(B) The left kidney is more caudally located than the right kidney

(C) The right kidney can be palpated rectally

(D) They are of the unipyramidal type

(E) They have smooth surfaces


5. Which of the following best describes the composition of the musculature of the canine esophagus?

(A) Two-thirds smooth muscle and one-third striated muscle

(B) One-half striated and one-half smooth muscle

(C) Two-thirds striated muscle and one-third smooth muscle

(D) Almost entirely striated muscle

(E) Almost entirely smooth muscle


6. Which stage of the canine estrous cycle is indicated by nonnucleated epithelial cells in a vaginal smear?

(A) Late diestrus

(B) Late estrus

(C) Early diestrus

(D) Early proestrus

(E) Anestrus


7. When using hand processing chemical tanks to develop radiographic film, which of the following is the order in which the chemicals should be used:

(A) Developer, water bath, fixer, water bath

(B) Fixer, water bath, developer, water bath

(C) Water bath, developer, water bath, fixer

(D) Water bath, fixer, water bath, developer


8. A radiographic film appears brownish yellow. Which of the following procedures was not performed properly?

(A) Developing

(B) Drying

(C) Fixing

(D) Washing


9. Which of the following changes occurs as a result of metabolic acidosis?

(A) Oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve shifts to the left

(B) Plasma becomes hypotonic

(C) Plasma ionized calcium concentration increases

(D) Serum glucose concentration increases

(E) Serum potassium concentrations decreases


10. Gastrin decreases which of the following:

(A) Gastric pH

(B) Ileocecal sphincter pressure

(C) Lower esophageal sphincter pressure

(D) Pepsinogen secretion

(E) Pyloric sphincter pressure


11. Volatile fatty acids (VFA) provide what percentage of energy for the dairy cow?

(A) 20%

(B) 40%

(C) 50%

(D) 60%

(E) 80%


12. In the ketoacidosis of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, which one of the following findings is most likely?

(A) Arterial blood pH = 7.7

(B) Neuromuscular hyperirritability causing fasiculations and convulsions

(C) Plasma osmolarity = 260 mosmol/L

(D) Plasma potassium concentration = 1.7 mEq/L

(E) Arterial blood pCO2 = 30 mm Hg


13. Parasympathetic activity decreases mean arterial pressure by which of the following mechanisms?

(A) Decreased heart rate

(B) Decreased muscle tone

(C) Decreased stroke volume

(D) Decreased ventricular contractility

(E) Dilation of arterioles


14. In the healthy animal, decreasing which of the following also decreases blood flow?

(A) Arteriolar radius

(B) Length of the vessel

(C) Number of circulating red blood cells

(D) Plasma protein concentration

(E) Surface area of the vessel


15. During exercise, which of the following physiologic parameters would be expected to decrease compared with the resting state?

(A) Cardiac output

(B) Plasma glucagon concentration

(C) Stroke volume

(D) Ventricular end-systolic volume


16. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism associated with hypoadrenocorticism?

(A) Combined deficiencies of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids

(B) Decreased glomerular filtration rate

(C) Depletion of extracellular fluid volume

(D) Increased serum calcium concentration

(E) Impaired renal excretion of potassium and conservation of sodium


17. The main ingredients in diets of caged birds are seeds. Which two vitamins are most likely to be deficient in seed diets?

(A) Vitamins E and K

(B) Vitamins A and D

(C) Vitamins A and K

(D) Vitamins A and B

(E) Vitamins D and E


18. Which of the following best describes the actions of thromboxanes and prostacyclin?

(A) Anabolic

(B) Antagonistic

(C) Inhibitory

(D) Synergistic

(E) Unrelated


19. Which of the following is more likely to occur with use of an extended-spectrum antimicrobial drug than with a narrow-spectrum antimicrobial drug?

(A) Drug fever

(B) Drug interactions

(C) Hypersensitivity reactions

(D) Release of bacterial endotoxins

(E) Superinfection


20. In comparison to morphine, codeine is:

(A) more addictive

(B) more potent

(C) a stronger respiratory depressant

(D) more useful as an antitussive

(E) an opiate antagonist, whereas morphine is an agonist


21. Which of the following is an adsorbent commonly given orally as an antidote in the treatment of a wide variety of poisonings in animals?

(A) Activated charcoal

(B) Tannic acid

(C) Zinc oxide

(D) Poloxalene

(E) Copper sulfate


22. Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of sinus bradycardia?

(A) Atropine

(B) Propranolol

(C) Quinidine

(D) Phenylephrine

(E) Methacholine


23. Which of the following parasitic genera acquires protection from adverse pasture conditions by inhibiting its larval development in the abomasal wall of cattle?

(A) Haemonchus

(B) Trichostrongylus

(C) Ostertagia

(D) Fasiciola

(E) Oesophagostomum


24. Which of the following arthropods is the intermediate host of the subcutaneous filarid of dogs?

(A) Ctenocephalides

(B) Stomoxys

(C) Culex

(D) Rhipicephalus

(E) Tabanus


25. Which of the following diseases is not considered an exotic disease in North America?

(A) African swine fever

(B) Foot-and-mouth disease

(C) Rinderpest

(D) Swine vesicular disease

(E) Vesicular stomatitis


26. Which of the following processes occurs first during acute inflammation?

(A) Degranulation of leukocytes with release of kinins

(B) Increased permeability of capillaries and postcapillary venules

(C) Margination of leukocytes in vessels associated with the area of injury

(D) Polymerization of fibrin from fibrinogen

(E) Transformation of monocytes into macrophages that synthesize and release cytokines


27. A 2-month-old Arabian foal has had recurrent respiratory infections, and combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) is suspected. To support this diagnosis, each of the following should be evaluated EXCEPT

(A) complement C3 concentration

(B) immunoglobulin concentration

(C) lymphocyte count

(D) splenic tissue

(E) thymic tissue


28. Which of the following terms most appropriately describes the effects of saprophytic bacteria on necrotic tissue?

(A) Abscesses

(B) Coagulation

(C) Gangrene

(D) Granulomas

(E) Infarcts


29. A kidney has a well-demarcated, wedge-shaped, pale tan lesion. Histologic examination of the lesion shows increased cytoplasmic eosinophilia, karyolysis, and intact tissue architecture. This lesion is most consistent with which of the following types of necrosis?

(A) Caseous

(B) Coagulative

(C) Fibrinoid

(D) Liquefactive

(E) Zenker's


30. Which of the following terms best describes a neoplasm that induces abundant collagenous stroma?

(A) Anaplastic

(B) Desmoplastic

(C) Dysplastic

(D) Hyperplastic

(E) Metaplastic


31. Which of the following cell types is LEAST able to regenerate?

(A) Centrolobular hepatocytes

(B) Cerebral neurons

(C) Colonic epithelium

(D) Subcutaneous fibroblasts

(E) Vascular endothelium


32. Which of the following is the most likely cause of decreased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)?

(A) In vitro hemolysis

(B) Iron deficiency

(C) Lipemia

(D) Spherocytosis


33. Which of the following is the most likely finding on a leukogram from a cow with a large chronic abscess?

(A) Monocytosis with left shift and toxic change

(B) Neutropenia and eosinopenia

(C) Neutropenia and monocytosis

(D) Neutropenia with left shift and toxic change

(E) Neutrophilia and monocytosis




Answer Key for Sample Questions


1. C

11. E

21. A

31. B

2. C

12. E

22. A

32. B

3. D

13. A

23. C

33. E

4. B

14. A

24. A


5. D

15. D

25. E


6. B

16. A

26. B


7. A

17. B

27. A


8. D

18. B

28. C


9. C

19. E

29. B


10. A

20. D

30. B